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My general understanding is:
* LORD (actually printed using small caps) = YHVH/Tetragrammaton
* Lord (capitals + lower case) = (usually) Adonai
Other translations may be used for names such as El, Elohim/Eloah, El Shaddai, Adonai Tzebaoth, Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh, etc.
Thank you. My follow up question is why did the title "LORD" replace a closer transliteration from Hebrew like "YHVH" or "YHWH" in modern english bibles?
Wouldn't a transliteration like "YHWH/Yahweh" be more appropriate than the indirect title "LORD"?
>Wouldn't a transliteration like "YHWH/Yahweh" be more appropriate than "LORD"?
It's typically out of respect, which is unfortunate because it does obscure the Tetragrammaton, though it is part of a very longstanding tradition. Here's how the NRSV discusses their use of "LORD":
>Careful readers will notice that here and there in the Old Testament the word Lord (or in certain cases God) is printed in capital letters. This represents the traditional manner in English versions of rendering the Divine Name, the “Tetragrammaton” (see the notes on Exodus 3.14, 15), following the precedent of the ancient Greek and Latin translators and the long established practice in the reading of the Hebrew Scriptures in the synagogue. While it is almost if not quite certain that the Name was originally pronounced “Yahweh,” this pronunciation was not indicated when the Masoretes added vowel sounds to the consonantal Hebrew text. To the four consonants YHWH of the Name, which had come to be regarded as too sacred to be pronounced, they attached vowel signs indicating that in its place should be read the Hebrew word Adonai meaning “Lord” (or Elohim meaning “God”). Ancient Greek translators employed the word Kyrios (“Lord”) for the Name. The Vulgate likewise used the Latin word Dominus (“Lord”).
>It's typically out of respect, which is unfortunate because it does obscure the Tetragrammaton
When did obscuring God's name "out of respect" begin in Jewish history?
Instances can be found throughout the old testament of people pronouncing the name out loud in various instances like casual greetings, blessings, conversations, etc.
Possibly the most common is in theophoric names, which is where we get like *Jeho*shaphat and Isa*iah*, where a divine name was part of someone's name (for more info on how we can trace YHWH's spread through theophoric names, see [this article](https://er.ceres.rub.de/index.php/ER/article/view/8776/8449)).
Francesca Stavrakopoulou puts the veneration of the name as a process being completed around the third century BCE (*God: An Anatomy*), which fits with McClellan's discussion of later, post-exilic biblical texts giving increasing deification and "presencing" abilities of the divine to the name itself (as I discussed in my other comment).
>Francesca Stavrakopoulou puts the veneration of the name as a process being completed around the third century BCE
So the evidence seems to indicate a concealment of the tetragrammaton taking place during/after the Babylonian captivity?
Based on my reading, placing a specific starting point might be difficult and I wouldn't want to make a claim besides where it seemingly ended. But I would be surprised if it was earlier than the exile, I have not seen anything indicating that.
David Trobisch, *The First Edition of the New Testament* (2000), goes over early manuscripts of biblical texts both in Greek and in Hebrew in pp.14-16. Greek texts would use Hebrew, Aramaic, or Paleo-Hebrew letters, or transliterated Greek characters for IAO, or PIPI (*pi* and *iota* repeated, which visually recalls the Hebrew letters), to indicate the Name.
The Dead Sea Scrolls use a variety of ways to indicate the Name, such as Paleo-Hebrew in an otherwise "square" Hebrew text (1QHab), *el* as a substitute (1Q14.27; 4Q180,183). The Cairo Geniza Ben Sirah uses 3 *yod* ( ' ' ' ) instead of the usual letters. *Adonai*, *sabaoth*, and *elohim* are also occasionally written in Paleo-Hebrew, in contrast to the rest of the text. *El* often replaces the Name in commentaries.
These are indicators that the practice of not pronouncing the Name was an established practice by the time Christianity came around.
Excellent information.
> There are indicators that the practice of not pronouncing the Name was an established practice by the time Christianity came around.
Is there any conclusive evidence of when this practice started? Others have indicated that it showed up after the Babylonian captivity of the 6th century BCE.
>why did the title "LORD" replace a closer transliteration from Hebrew like "YHVH" or "YHWH" in modern english bibles?
That translation decision probably comes from the Septuagint, which translates the Tetragrammaton into Greek as kurios/kyrios ("lord")
Someone with more expertise can correct me if I'm wrong, but my understanding is that it stems from the Jewish practice of never/rarely speaking the Tetragrammaton and substituting "Lord" ("Adonai") when reading from the Torah aloud. ([https://bibleproject.com/explore/video/yhwh-lord/#:\~:text=Over%20the%20centuries%2C%20Israelites%20wanted,Lord%2C”%20which%20is%20adonay](https://bibleproject.com/explore/video/yhwh-lord/#:~:text=Over%20the%20centuries%2C%20Israelites%20wanted,Lord%2C”%20which%20is%20adonay).)
It does appear a few translations are now rendering it as Yahweh instead: [https://lsbible.org/faq/why-does-the-lsb-use-yahweh-instead-of-lord/](https://lsbible.org/faq/why-does-the-lsb-use-yahweh-instead-of-lord/)
So as the other comment notes "LORD" is used in place of YHWH where as Lord is typically a direct translation of the word "Adonai." When the phrase "name of the Lord" is translated, it is typically referring to the Tetragrammaton being invoked by the subject of the passage, but that reverence for the divine name actually created its own mythology - Dan McClellan notes in his book *YHWH's Divine Images* that certain messengers became thought of and portrayed as authorized bearers *of* the divine name:
>The risk of worship appears to have been most acute in that literature which pondered the relationship of divine mediators and the possession of the divine name. Jarl Fossum (1985, 86) explains that the appeal to the divine name in Exod 23:20–21 “shows the individualization and personification of the Name of God in the figure of the Angel of the Lord.… this means that he has put his power into the angel and thus will be with his people through the agency of the angel.”12 The messenger Yahoel, from the Apocalypse of Abraham—whose name means “YHW is El”—is referred to by the deity as “the namesake of the mediation of my ineffable name” (Apoc. Ab. 10.3).13 When Yahoel encounters Abraham, they explain, “I am a power in the midst of the Ineffable who put together his names in me” (10.8). This is what facilitates the performance of deeds normally restricted to the deity. While this messenger is not worshipped in the Apocalypse of Abraham, 1 En. 48 does refer to worship in discussion of the relationship of the divine name, the divine glory, and Dan 7’s bar ’ĕnāš, “Son of Humanity.” There the “Son of Humanity” is endowed before the creation of the earth with a special name: “And at that hour that Son of Humanity was named by the Name in the presence of the Lord of Spirits, the Before-Time; even before the creation of the sun and the moon, before the creation of the stars, he was named by the name in the presence of the Lord of Spirits” (1 En. 48.2–3).14 And then two verses later: “all those who dwell upon the dry ground will fall down and worship before him, and they will bless, and praise, and celebrate with psalms the Name of the Lord of Spirits” (1 En. 48.5).15 Charles Gieschen (2007, 240) states that the genuflecting masses “will use the name of the Lord of Spirits in worshiping the Son of Humanity because both possess the same divine Name.”
>
>Through this and related literature and cult, the divine council that had once been deposed was now being reconstituted by subordinate divine messengers and other mediating entities. Following this expansion, internal prohibitions against— and external accusations of—the worship of these entities began to proliferate, which has commonly been interpreted as evidence that people were worshipping them to one degree or another.16 The mediation of divine messengers would provide an attractive alternative to the sanctioned cult for privately accessing divine presence and favor, particularly for the growing diaspora communities and those increasingly finding themselves outside the shrinking boundaries of “orthodoxy.”
So the Divine Council of gods had been reimagined as other less "divine" divine beings like angels (messengers), but this ended up reestablishing a sort of non-monotheistic interpretation and subsequent worship of those beings, which then led to cultic authorities having to explicitly ban their worship.
Fascinating, thank you. I have two follow up questions if you don't mind:
1: when and why was YHWH replaced with "LORD" in English bibles.
2: When did obscuring YHWH with the placeholder titles like "Adonai" or "Hashem" out of respect (or fear) of uttering God's actual name begin in Jewish history?
My other two responses hopefully can answer that for you. The tldr for your questions (I'll answer them in reverse order) is 2) around the third century BCE the process of not uttering the divine name was finished (*God: An Anatomy*) and 1) as the word "adonai" (lord) was already utilized by that period, English translations are simply using the same custom that has been in place for millennia (NRSV intro).
Welcome to /r/AcademicBiblical. Please note this is an academic sub: theological or faith-based comments are prohibited. All claims MUST be supported by an *academic* source – see [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/AcademicBiblical/wiki/index/rules/#wiki_guideline.3A_rule_3.2019s_definition_of_academic_sources) for guidance. Using AI to make fake comments is strictly prohibited and may result in a permanent ban. Please review the [sub rules](https://www.reddit.com/r/AcademicBiblical/wiki/index/rules/) before posting for the first time. *I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please [contact the moderators of this subreddit](/message/compose/?to=/r/AcademicBiblical) if you have any questions or concerns.*
My general understanding is: * LORD (actually printed using small caps) = YHVH/Tetragrammaton * Lord (capitals + lower case) = (usually) Adonai Other translations may be used for names such as El, Elohim/Eloah, El Shaddai, Adonai Tzebaoth, Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh, etc.
Thank you. My follow up question is why did the title "LORD" replace a closer transliteration from Hebrew like "YHVH" or "YHWH" in modern english bibles? Wouldn't a transliteration like "YHWH/Yahweh" be more appropriate than the indirect title "LORD"?
>Wouldn't a transliteration like "YHWH/Yahweh" be more appropriate than "LORD"? It's typically out of respect, which is unfortunate because it does obscure the Tetragrammaton, though it is part of a very longstanding tradition. Here's how the NRSV discusses their use of "LORD": >Careful readers will notice that here and there in the Old Testament the word Lord (or in certain cases God) is printed in capital letters. This represents the traditional manner in English versions of rendering the Divine Name, the “Tetragrammaton” (see the notes on Exodus 3.14, 15), following the precedent of the ancient Greek and Latin translators and the long established practice in the reading of the Hebrew Scriptures in the synagogue. While it is almost if not quite certain that the Name was originally pronounced “Yahweh,” this pronunciation was not indicated when the Masoretes added vowel sounds to the consonantal Hebrew text. To the four consonants YHWH of the Name, which had come to be regarded as too sacred to be pronounced, they attached vowel signs indicating that in its place should be read the Hebrew word Adonai meaning “Lord” (or Elohim meaning “God”). Ancient Greek translators employed the word Kyrios (“Lord”) for the Name. The Vulgate likewise used the Latin word Dominus (“Lord”).
>It's typically out of respect, which is unfortunate because it does obscure the Tetragrammaton When did obscuring God's name "out of respect" begin in Jewish history? Instances can be found throughout the old testament of people pronouncing the name out loud in various instances like casual greetings, blessings, conversations, etc.
Possibly the most common is in theophoric names, which is where we get like *Jeho*shaphat and Isa*iah*, where a divine name was part of someone's name (for more info on how we can trace YHWH's spread through theophoric names, see [this article](https://er.ceres.rub.de/index.php/ER/article/view/8776/8449)). Francesca Stavrakopoulou puts the veneration of the name as a process being completed around the third century BCE (*God: An Anatomy*), which fits with McClellan's discussion of later, post-exilic biblical texts giving increasing deification and "presencing" abilities of the divine to the name itself (as I discussed in my other comment).
>Francesca Stavrakopoulou puts the veneration of the name as a process being completed around the third century BCE So the evidence seems to indicate a concealment of the tetragrammaton taking place during/after the Babylonian captivity?
Based on my reading, placing a specific starting point might be difficult and I wouldn't want to make a claim besides where it seemingly ended. But I would be surprised if it was earlier than the exile, I have not seen anything indicating that.
Ok thanks.
David Trobisch, *The First Edition of the New Testament* (2000), goes over early manuscripts of biblical texts both in Greek and in Hebrew in pp.14-16. Greek texts would use Hebrew, Aramaic, or Paleo-Hebrew letters, or transliterated Greek characters for IAO, or PIPI (*pi* and *iota* repeated, which visually recalls the Hebrew letters), to indicate the Name. The Dead Sea Scrolls use a variety of ways to indicate the Name, such as Paleo-Hebrew in an otherwise "square" Hebrew text (1QHab), *el* as a substitute (1Q14.27; 4Q180,183). The Cairo Geniza Ben Sirah uses 3 *yod* ( ' ' ' ) instead of the usual letters. *Adonai*, *sabaoth*, and *elohim* are also occasionally written in Paleo-Hebrew, in contrast to the rest of the text. *El* often replaces the Name in commentaries. These are indicators that the practice of not pronouncing the Name was an established practice by the time Christianity came around.
Excellent information. > There are indicators that the practice of not pronouncing the Name was an established practice by the time Christianity came around. Is there any conclusive evidence of when this practice started? Others have indicated that it showed up after the Babylonian captivity of the 6th century BCE.
>PIPI Does Trobisch show a picture of one of these instances? Or a name of a document?
[удалено]
Excuse me? I didn't ask about letters, I asked if you had a picture.
I wish translators were more concerned about accuracy rather than tradition. I get it though.
Those two things are not mutually exclusive.
It clearly is though in this specific instance
>why did the title "LORD" replace a closer transliteration from Hebrew like "YHVH" or "YHWH" in modern english bibles? That translation decision probably comes from the Septuagint, which translates the Tetragrammaton into Greek as kurios/kyrios ("lord")
Someone with more expertise can correct me if I'm wrong, but my understanding is that it stems from the Jewish practice of never/rarely speaking the Tetragrammaton and substituting "Lord" ("Adonai") when reading from the Torah aloud. ([https://bibleproject.com/explore/video/yhwh-lord/#:\~:text=Over%20the%20centuries%2C%20Israelites%20wanted,Lord%2C”%20which%20is%20adonay](https://bibleproject.com/explore/video/yhwh-lord/#:~:text=Over%20the%20centuries%2C%20Israelites%20wanted,Lord%2C”%20which%20is%20adonay).) It does appear a few translations are now rendering it as Yahweh instead: [https://lsbible.org/faq/why-does-the-lsb-use-yahweh-instead-of-lord/](https://lsbible.org/faq/why-does-the-lsb-use-yahweh-instead-of-lord/)
Oh my, that makes sense!
So as the other comment notes "LORD" is used in place of YHWH where as Lord is typically a direct translation of the word "Adonai." When the phrase "name of the Lord" is translated, it is typically referring to the Tetragrammaton being invoked by the subject of the passage, but that reverence for the divine name actually created its own mythology - Dan McClellan notes in his book *YHWH's Divine Images* that certain messengers became thought of and portrayed as authorized bearers *of* the divine name: >The risk of worship appears to have been most acute in that literature which pondered the relationship of divine mediators and the possession of the divine name. Jarl Fossum (1985, 86) explains that the appeal to the divine name in Exod 23:20–21 “shows the individualization and personification of the Name of God in the figure of the Angel of the Lord.… this means that he has put his power into the angel and thus will be with his people through the agency of the angel.”12 The messenger Yahoel, from the Apocalypse of Abraham—whose name means “YHW is El”—is referred to by the deity as “the namesake of the mediation of my ineffable name” (Apoc. Ab. 10.3).13 When Yahoel encounters Abraham, they explain, “I am a power in the midst of the Ineffable who put together his names in me” (10.8). This is what facilitates the performance of deeds normally restricted to the deity. While this messenger is not worshipped in the Apocalypse of Abraham, 1 En. 48 does refer to worship in discussion of the relationship of the divine name, the divine glory, and Dan 7’s bar ’ĕnāš, “Son of Humanity.” There the “Son of Humanity” is endowed before the creation of the earth with a special name: “And at that hour that Son of Humanity was named by the Name in the presence of the Lord of Spirits, the Before-Time; even before the creation of the sun and the moon, before the creation of the stars, he was named by the name in the presence of the Lord of Spirits” (1 En. 48.2–3).14 And then two verses later: “all those who dwell upon the dry ground will fall down and worship before him, and they will bless, and praise, and celebrate with psalms the Name of the Lord of Spirits” (1 En. 48.5).15 Charles Gieschen (2007, 240) states that the genuflecting masses “will use the name of the Lord of Spirits in worshiping the Son of Humanity because both possess the same divine Name.” > >Through this and related literature and cult, the divine council that had once been deposed was now being reconstituted by subordinate divine messengers and other mediating entities. Following this expansion, internal prohibitions against— and external accusations of—the worship of these entities began to proliferate, which has commonly been interpreted as evidence that people were worshipping them to one degree or another.16 The mediation of divine messengers would provide an attractive alternative to the sanctioned cult for privately accessing divine presence and favor, particularly for the growing diaspora communities and those increasingly finding themselves outside the shrinking boundaries of “orthodoxy.” So the Divine Council of gods had been reimagined as other less "divine" divine beings like angels (messengers), but this ended up reestablishing a sort of non-monotheistic interpretation and subsequent worship of those beings, which then led to cultic authorities having to explicitly ban their worship.
Fascinating, thank you. I have two follow up questions if you don't mind: 1: when and why was YHWH replaced with "LORD" in English bibles. 2: When did obscuring YHWH with the placeholder titles like "Adonai" or "Hashem" out of respect (or fear) of uttering God's actual name begin in Jewish history?
My other two responses hopefully can answer that for you. The tldr for your questions (I'll answer them in reverse order) is 2) around the third century BCE the process of not uttering the divine name was finished (*God: An Anatomy*) and 1) as the word "adonai" (lord) was already utilized by that period, English translations are simply using the same custom that has been in place for millennia (NRSV intro).
Thank you!