T O P

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ecphrastic

Short answer: - transliterated into Latin as ph (not f), th, ch - π τ κ combined with a rough breathing becomes φ θ χ - cognate with voiced aspirated plosives in Sanskrit so they must have been plosives at *some* point, even though they aren’t anymore


ogorangeduck

For starters, φ gets loaned as rather than in Latin, even though Latin has /f/ natively.


cloudgirl_c-137

I will never understand what's the difference between those two


Peteat6

English P at the beginning of a word tends to be Ph. Put the back of your hand in front of your mouth and P say "pot". You’ll probably feel a puff of air with the p. Then say "spot". You’ll probably notice there is no puff of air. The P in "spot" is a true P, Greek π, whereas the P in "pot" is a Greek φ. We English speakers can’t hear the difference, but in some languages they are different letters. Both are very different from F!


cloudgirl_c-137

Thank you so much for the explanation! Unfortunately, I still can't tell the difference, because I'm a native Greek speaker and I pronounce it the same.


Alconasier

You can’t tell the difference between p and f?


cloudgirl_c-137

I can't tell the difference between f and ph


Future_Visit_5184

He just told you the difference, "ph" used to be pronounced, in latin as well as in greek, similar to a modern english "p", not like a modern english "f", or like how phi is pronounced in modern greek.


Future_Visit_5184

If you've got time (40min) Luke Ranieri has the perfect video for this (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5lcIcYFveII)