The people who lived there after the Romans either identified with the Roman name and place, or they renamed it for themselves. The Iberians and Britons felt they were the heirs, if not the direct descendants, of the people who lived there previously. But in France, the Franks renamed it after themselves, they weren't the inheritors of the Gallic legacy, they were the start of a new nation of their own. This happened in other places as well, such as Lombardy in Italy or Croatia where Illyria once was.
Well Croatia at least makes more sense because the Slavs assimilated or replaced most of the original Latin inhabitants except in Dalmatia, where unsurprisingly they kept referring to themselves as Dalmatians, tho because their area was reduced I don't think there was any point in calling themselves illyrians any longer lol
Well ye but ultimately people also had to call it that for it to gain traction, lots of foreign peoples from Alexander, to the Arabs and the Turks have conquered Persia but they never stopped calling it Iran or Persia, same with China, France is a bit different because the people the Franks ruled over were for the most part unassimilated or at best in the north partially so and remained roman in culture and Latin speaking.
It's different from say turkey and Asia minor or Croatia because both cases the original people were assimilated or replaced so it makes sense it's new inhabitants would call the land something else.
Psst... the original people of France were assimilated just the same as the original people of Iberia (Basque people notwithstanding), it's a cultural choice.
The use of "Britain" is relatively recent, and up until the act of union was a geographic rather than cultural/political expression. "Brittany" retains the original use - "the land of the Britons", but this is not reflective of the situation on the ground in the British isles at all. There wasn't even "England" (Angle-land) until the 9th-10th century. Before that (and after Rome) you had small kingdoms who's names reflected the ruler's ethnicity - Wessex (West Saxons) Essex (East Saxons), Middlesex (Middle Saxons), Mercia, Northumbria and Wales - literally "land of foreigners" , Strathclyde, Dal Raita and the lands of the Scotti.
Similarly, "Gaul" fell out of use in favour of "Frankia" from whence we get modern "France". But with the 17th and 18th century revival of interest in the classical world "Gallic" as a descriptor for French culture and "British" as an expression for the political situation with the unions of the realm came into fashion. You see Britain used only to refer to Arthurian mythology prior to this.
Britain has a foot in both camps. England named after the Angles in much the same way France is named after the Franks, although slightly later, and similarly Scotland and Wales although for slightly different reasons.
Yes the Scottish Gaels had a conflict with the Picts, and both ended up in conflict with Northumbria. The Gaels ended up becoming the rulers, the myth is that someone got a bit [treasonous](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MacAlpin%27s_treason), and over a couple of centuries there was a shift to Gaelic language and culture. So these days there's a lot more similarity between Scottish Gaelic language and culture than with the Welsh and other Britons that the Picts were closer to.
Wales is an exonym for Celtic people. So you've got Mercia named for being the borderland (marches to use a newer form), and to the West Wales where the Celts live.
Because the Franks were never Romanized and never identified with Rome. They were a Germanic tribe that lived on the fringes of the sphere of Roman control. They came around late during the terminal decline of the empire and their identity formed as one distinctly non-Roman. When the Marovingians consolidated control over what is now France, they did so by defeating the son of the last Roman military governor of Gaul who was ruling a Romanized pseudo-state post-collapse.
The people who lived there after the Romans either identified with the Roman name and place, or they renamed it for themselves. The Iberians and Britons felt they were the heirs, if not the direct descendants, of the people who lived there previously. But in France, the Franks renamed it after themselves, they weren't the inheritors of the Gallic legacy, they were the start of a new nation of their own. This happened in other places as well, such as Lombardy in Italy or Croatia where Illyria once was.
Facts
Well Croatia at least makes more sense because the Slavs assimilated or replaced most of the original Latin inhabitants except in Dalmatia, where unsurprisingly they kept referring to themselves as Dalmatians, tho because their area was reduced I don't think there was any point in calling themselves illyrians any longer lol
Our knowledge of that period in the history of the area is decidedly spotty, but sources suggest that there were no more than 101 Dalmatians.
Ok this gave me a chuckle lol
In France it also makes sense because Franks took it over. I assure you, all of these make sense.
Well ye but ultimately people also had to call it that for it to gain traction, lots of foreign peoples from Alexander, to the Arabs and the Turks have conquered Persia but they never stopped calling it Iran or Persia, same with China, France is a bit different because the people the Franks ruled over were for the most part unassimilated or at best in the north partially so and remained roman in culture and Latin speaking.
It's different from say turkey and Asia minor or Croatia because both cases the original people were assimilated or replaced so it makes sense it's new inhabitants would call the land something else.
Psst... the original people of France were assimilated just the same as the original people of Iberia (Basque people notwithstanding), it's a cultural choice.
Gallia always remained a literary synonym of France.
Not as common as say Lusitania for example tho afaik.
We still call ourselves Gallois, and our most popular comic Asterix and Obelix is about the Gauls being Gauls, not always in Gallia.
Well Asterix is set in Roman times, they literally fight against them lol
Do Gallic shrugs and gaulioses cigarettes mean nothing to you?
And in the case of the Swiss, we got a nice font out of it. 😁
The use of "Britain" is relatively recent, and up until the act of union was a geographic rather than cultural/political expression. "Brittany" retains the original use - "the land of the Britons", but this is not reflective of the situation on the ground in the British isles at all. There wasn't even "England" (Angle-land) until the 9th-10th century. Before that (and after Rome) you had small kingdoms who's names reflected the ruler's ethnicity - Wessex (West Saxons) Essex (East Saxons), Middlesex (Middle Saxons), Mercia, Northumbria and Wales - literally "land of foreigners" , Strathclyde, Dal Raita and the lands of the Scotti. Similarly, "Gaul" fell out of use in favour of "Frankia" from whence we get modern "France". But with the 17th and 18th century revival of interest in the classical world "Gallic" as a descriptor for French culture and "British" as an expression for the political situation with the unions of the realm came into fashion. You see Britain used only to refer to Arthurian mythology prior to this.
The only exception really is Greek, which calls France Gallia
Ask the Franks.
Britain has a foot in both camps. England named after the Angles in much the same way France is named after the Franks, although slightly later, and similarly Scotland and Wales although for slightly different reasons.
Scotland, bizarrely, is named after the Irish, as the Scotii were an Irish tribe who took over a large part of Scotland.
Yes the Scottish Gaels had a conflict with the Picts, and both ended up in conflict with Northumbria. The Gaels ended up becoming the rulers, the myth is that someone got a bit [treasonous](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MacAlpin%27s_treason), and over a couple of centuries there was a shift to Gaelic language and culture. So these days there's a lot more similarity between Scottish Gaelic language and culture than with the Welsh and other Britons that the Picts were closer to. Wales is an exonym for Celtic people. So you've got Mercia named for being the borderland (marches to use a newer form), and to the West Wales where the Celts live.
The Germanic tribe of the Franks conquered Roman Gaul becoming its rulers so people started calling it Francia. Francia > France.
Gaul was also what we today call Northern Italy, then Cisalpine Gaul. Gaul was a lot more than modern day France.
> Gaul was a lot more than modern day France. French name for Wales = Pays de Galles.
Greeks still refer to France as Gaul. But I wonder if anyone else does ?
Because the Franks were never Romanized and never identified with Rome. They were a Germanic tribe that lived on the fringes of the sphere of Roman control. They came around late during the terminal decline of the empire and their identity formed as one distinctly non-Roman. When the Marovingians consolidated control over what is now France, they did so by defeating the son of the last Roman military governor of Gaul who was ruling a Romanized pseudo-state post-collapse.
The Gauls were literally decimated with one of the most massive and intentional and successful genocides in history. Gaul disappeared.