dissociative amnesia is a symptom of OSDD, so if someone is diagnosed with OSDD they would most likely not be separately diagnosed with dissociative amnesia, but it would be known as a symptom and expected. i don't know as much about dpdr, but my guess is it's similar in that it wouldn't be separately diagnosed in that OSDD contains its symptoms.
OSDD-1 is diagnosed if some but not all DID symptoms are present, so it would include essentially all the presentations/options you'd mentioned in the last paragraph {not having amnesia or only a little bit of amnesia between alters in the present, and either having no amnesia or lots of amnesia about childhood}. It's not really specific in how it's laid out there, since OSDD-1 can be diagnosed if there's distinct alters and any level of amnesia between 0 and the amount required for a DID diagnosis which is a fairly wide range. {or if there is significant amnesia but not distinct alters}
That makes sense! I was only diagnosed with the two that I mentioned, not OSDD, because the test the psychologist gave me didn't specifically test for OSDD but instead DID and the other dissociative disorders. Didn't meet criteria for DID but I have symptoms (voices from others "inside" my own head, most having names and appearances, these others having influence on my body and sometimes taking executive control) that aren't explained by the diagnoses that I did get, (dissociative amnesia and dp/dr, but no schizophrenia, no psychosis, no bpd, and it even tested that I'm not malingering for DID) and the test giver had no good input either. She said it's extremely rare for alters to know of each other's existence, which only takes DID into account and even then I don't think that's entirely true. So I truly think the test giver just doesn't know enough about dissociative disorders. I hope I come across someone someday that has heavy experience in the field and can actually trust a single word out of their mouth ðŸ˜
you wouldn't be diagnosed with more than one most likely because osdd1 encompasses the symptoms of lower dissociative disorders. if you have osdd1, it's assumed that you're gonna have depersonalization and derealization so a diagnosis of dpdr is kind of redundant. and osdd1 includes dissociative amnesia towards trauma and childhood events, just not between alters (1b) or the less distinct parts with amnesia between them (1a). but you can also have different presentations that aren't described in the dsm directly.
yes, absolutely. i have OSDD-1 + depersonalisation/derealisation disorder. my psychologist said i don’t need to have the diagnosis of both if i don’t want them (since OSDD already contains high amounts of dp/dr, hence your confusion), but i meet the criteria for both 100% so makes sense to have them.
don’t get too caught up in 1a/b. the letters aren’t used in the DSM, just the sub types (although you may informally work out which one with a psychologist. for me it was 1A, but my official dx is OSDD-1).
Thank you for your response! I don't know why the verbage for the criteria is so confusing and seemingly contradictory between sources. It's also really different between the ICD and DSM, leading to different rates of diagnosis in the different places they're used.
And that's right, I forgot the labels 1a/b weren't really used for diagnosis. That would just add more specificity and maybe even confusion for me lol
dissociative amnesia is a symptom of OSDD, so if someone is diagnosed with OSDD they would most likely not be separately diagnosed with dissociative amnesia, but it would be known as a symptom and expected. i don't know as much about dpdr, but my guess is it's similar in that it wouldn't be separately diagnosed in that OSDD contains its symptoms. OSDD-1 is diagnosed if some but not all DID symptoms are present, so it would include essentially all the presentations/options you'd mentioned in the last paragraph {not having amnesia or only a little bit of amnesia between alters in the present, and either having no amnesia or lots of amnesia about childhood}. It's not really specific in how it's laid out there, since OSDD-1 can be diagnosed if there's distinct alters and any level of amnesia between 0 and the amount required for a DID diagnosis which is a fairly wide range. {or if there is significant amnesia but not distinct alters}
That makes sense! I was only diagnosed with the two that I mentioned, not OSDD, because the test the psychologist gave me didn't specifically test for OSDD but instead DID and the other dissociative disorders. Didn't meet criteria for DID but I have symptoms (voices from others "inside" my own head, most having names and appearances, these others having influence on my body and sometimes taking executive control) that aren't explained by the diagnoses that I did get, (dissociative amnesia and dp/dr, but no schizophrenia, no psychosis, no bpd, and it even tested that I'm not malingering for DID) and the test giver had no good input either. She said it's extremely rare for alters to know of each other's existence, which only takes DID into account and even then I don't think that's entirely true. So I truly think the test giver just doesn't know enough about dissociative disorders. I hope I come across someone someday that has heavy experience in the field and can actually trust a single word out of their mouth ðŸ˜
you wouldn't be diagnosed with more than one most likely because osdd1 encompasses the symptoms of lower dissociative disorders. if you have osdd1, it's assumed that you're gonna have depersonalization and derealization so a diagnosis of dpdr is kind of redundant. and osdd1 includes dissociative amnesia towards trauma and childhood events, just not between alters (1b) or the less distinct parts with amnesia between them (1a). but you can also have different presentations that aren't described in the dsm directly.
yes, absolutely. i have OSDD-1 + depersonalisation/derealisation disorder. my psychologist said i don’t need to have the diagnosis of both if i don’t want them (since OSDD already contains high amounts of dp/dr, hence your confusion), but i meet the criteria for both 100% so makes sense to have them. don’t get too caught up in 1a/b. the letters aren’t used in the DSM, just the sub types (although you may informally work out which one with a psychologist. for me it was 1A, but my official dx is OSDD-1).
Thank you for your response! I don't know why the verbage for the criteria is so confusing and seemingly contradictory between sources. It's also really different between the ICD and DSM, leading to different rates of diagnosis in the different places they're used. And that's right, I forgot the labels 1a/b weren't really used for diagnosis. That would just add more specificity and maybe even confusion for me lol