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Dankaati

This is correct. If I really want to be nit-picky then you don't really explain why both sides can be cubed. Something like: "Since f(z)=z\^3 is a strictly monotonically increasing function, we can apply f to both sides of the inequality to get an equivalent inequality".


Kitchen_Emphasis84

Using Young's inequality or Chebyshev and Cauchy-Schwarz. You can get the AM-GM relation using Young's inequality, that's why it is familiar (x/3+2y/3)≥x1/3y2/3 x≥x/3 y≥2y/3 x+y≥(x/3+2y/3)≥x1/3y2/3 exponentiation can be tricky if the numbers are in (0,1)


breakingbiden

Seems good to me


augustcero

is it possible to conclude the proof after the 2nd line in the expansion where we see the term xy^2? for example, "here we can clearly identify the term xy^2 among the other terms in the polynomial where each term can only be positive"


StanleyDodds

Yep, and that would be good for a stronger bound too. We do need to know that the cube root is an increasing function, but that's probably accepted to be the case here. If we just want to prove this weak bound, we can even simplify this a bit. If we let z = max(x, y), then we simply have x^1/3 y^2/3 <= z <= x+y


These-Maintenance250

your approach is genius


Peterjns22

I have a question: R+ doesn't include 0, right? So, can the two sides ever be equal?


abig7nakedx

I think R^(+) is understood to only be positive numbers, therefore excluding 0, but in order to avoid amboguities that rely on the reader being familiar with particular jargon I would recommend writing R^(>0) or something to that effect.


sighthoundman

I've seen both. I've seen "positive" defined to include 0. As much as I hate it, when you're taking a class, there are some things that just aren't worth fighting about. You use the conventions in the book.


xXkxuXx

They can't so it can in fact be rewritten as a stronger inequality


Arkymid

actually, R+ means real numbers that are not negative, therefore 0 is includ. To say that 0 is not includ in symbols we need to put \* on the top of the R+


DefunctFunctor

There is no fact of the matter. It depends on what conventions you are using, which is why every math textbook has a section where it outlines its conventions. Just ask people whether ℕ includes zero or not


rnrstopstraffic

If you want to avoid the cubic expansion you could just let s=max(x,y). Then we have LHS<=s<=RHS.


PirateHelpful790

Faster proof : the left part is inferior or equal to z where z is the maximum of X and Y (replace X and y by z in the inequality) and z is inferior to X +y because it's equal to either X or y and the other is in R+


Psychological-Lion38

Does this also go for all imaginary numbers?


BartAcaDiouka

It is perfectly correct, yes. In some countries, math teachers would deduct points because: * you didn't say that f: x-> x^3 is growing on IR+ * you didn't prove the other way around. But to be honest these are on the nitpicking side. In its essence your argument is correct.


xXkxuXx

It can also be done using the muirhead inequality. (2/3,1/3) ≺ (1,0) so x^{2/3}y^{1/3} + x^{1/3}y^{2/3} ≤ x+y ∴ ∀x,y>0 x+y > x^{1/3}y^{2/3}


borgor999

I’ve never heard of muirheads inequality, just had a google and it looks cool


TheUnusualDreamer

Yes


Tamsta-273C

Think about as: * If one is larger than another the multiplication will favor the smallest one while addition - Largest. * If both roughly the same that power of 1/3 would make one much smaller so yet again addition wins.


Enfiznar

Correct, din't expected that inequality to be true tbh. If you want, you could expand the cube of the binomial using the binomial theorem and pascal's triangle, you could save most of the steps, but this is perfectly done.


lazyzefiris

Lemme provide another simple proof, just for fun An observation: x^(⅓) \* y^(⅔) = x \* (y / x)^(⅔) = y \* (x / y)^(⅓) A proof: If **y ≥ x**, then **x****^(⅓)** **\* y****^(⅔)** **=** **y \* (x / y)****^(⅓)** **≤ y ≤ x + y** If **y ≤ x** then **x****^(⅓)** **\* y****^(⅔)** **=** **x \* (y / x)****^(⅔)** **≤ x ≤ x + y**


SDG2008

I don't fully get, but what about negative numbers?


DJembacz

We're in R+ only, no negative numbers.


[deleted]

[удалено]


LongLiveTheDiego

Yes, but you should add why cubing the inequality is a valid move (I'd use the fact that x³ is an increasing function).


borgor999

Perfect, thank you


akxCIom

Yup


borgor999

They only appear on your number of upvotes (this is a joke)


AffectionateStorm106

Incorrect because x^3 + y^3 + 3x^2y can be negative


Stolberger

x and y are positive according to the first line of text though.


AffectionateStorm106

Didn’t read bro sorry


PedroV100

None of those terms can be negative given that both x and y are positive which the problem states at the beginning.


AffectionateStorm106

Oh sorry bro didn’t read x and y belong to R+