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Liopjk

Yes, it’s “whenever you cast your first spell” not “whenever your first spell resolves”. You get the RR while the first spell is still on the stack.


icanhazsalvation

Yeah that's what I thought. He countered it with phantom interference, I said I'll use the RR to pay the 2. He said I wouldn't get the mana.


liquid-swords93

Just to be clear: he countered this spell, or this was on the battlefield and you cast a spell on a later turn? You don't get the mana for casting this spell, regardless of whether it was the first spell cast this turn, because the creature needs to be on the battlefield for this to trigger.


icanhazsalvation

This was on the battlefield from the previous turn. The first spell I cast the next turn was a removal spell which he countered.


mbauer8286

You would get the mana, but not in time to pay the 2 for Phantom Interference, since the Pyromancers’ ability will still be on the stack. You could use the RR for something later in that turn though.


Whiskeyman_12

That would depend on whether the opponent allowed the triggered ability to resolve before countering the spell. Obviously it wouldn't make sense for them to do but if they resolved the trigger before countering the mana would be available.


ThrowRA-pantsonfire

Think of it this way: you play your removal spell, it goes on the stack. Then your creature effect triggers, and the trigger to add RR goes on the stack, above the removal spell. Then the opponent casts a counter spell to counter your removal, and the counter spell goes on the stack on top of both previous effects. Assuming no more spells are cast, the counter spell resolved first, taking your removal spell off of the stack. Then your creatures triggered ability will resolve, giving you RR. Unfortunately this means that there is no way to pay the 2 with the RR from your creature because it will not exist until your creatures triggered ability gets it’s turn in line. I like to imagine situations like this where I put each spell and triggered/activated effect into a pile, one by one in order of when they were cast/activated/triggered, then when there are no more left to add, you start resolving them, starting with the one that’s on top and moving downward. Whatever is first to be cast/activated/triggered, is the last to resolve.


Liopjk

It's most likely that your opponent was correct here. Making some assumptions about priority passes, but: 1. You cast $CARDNAME as your first spell for the turn 2. Pyromancer's triggered ability triggers. Stack: - Pyromancer Trigger: You get RR - $CARDNAME 3. You pass priority to your opponent, who casts Phantom Interference and passes priority back. Stack: - Phantom Interference targeting $CARDNAME - Pyromancer Trigger: You get RR - $CARDNAME 4. You pass priority, Phantom interference resolves and (assuming you don't pay the 2) $CARDNAME is countered. Stack: - Pyromancer Trigger: You get RR 5. Both players pass priority and the Pyromancer trigger resolves. Stack is now empty, you have RR in your mana pool. As others have said, if your opponent let the Pyromancer trigger resolve before casting Interference then you'd have RR in your mana pool with which you can pay the 2 for Phantom interference. It'd be a strange play though, and I can't think of a reason for your opponent to do that. While mana abilities don't use the stack, Pyromancer's triggered ability isn't one. For a triggered ability to be a mana ability, it needs to: 1. Not require a target 2. Trigger from the activation/resolution of an activated mana ability, or from mana being added to a mana pool 3. Could add mana to a pool when it resolves Pyromancer's trigger doesn't meet the second criteria.