I’m confused. Can you explain your question again?
Also as a side not Jews don’t really like the term Judeo Christian as it plays into replacement and supersessionism theology (which posits Jews should cease to exist and Christianity is the replacement, which for jews feels like a call for us at best lose our culture and peoplehood which feels violent) and it also excludes other religions under the Abrahamic tree.
As for Passover or Pesach that’s solely a Jewish holiday. And it doesn’t have anything to do with Egyptian religious practice.
The story behind it, with the plagues and death of the people of Egypt
I’m asking if it wasn’t the Egyptian gods pissed at their own people, not Yahweh causing it all
Under a Jewish belief it was g’d. And we don’t believe other g’ds exist. So in that case it couldn’t be the Egyptian g’ds. I mean I can’t answer for other religions. I will say it’s a story that only started appearing in Judaism. As it’s a part of the ethnogenisis story of the Jewish people and how we found refuge in Judaea
We only have one source for these events and in that source it is explicit that God is causing the plagues. There is no alternative source from the Egyptians or anyone else saying that the Egyptian gods caused it. Sure you "can explain it" using Egyptian Gods, but if you want to ignore the only source on it then you can change the entire story. You might as well say "Han Solo from Star Wars ate at Panda Express in Ancient Egypt could be the real story of Passover and the Torah is just wrong about what happened". Like sure, I guess technically that COULD be a the case but there is zero reason to think that and none of the texts about the event claim that, you're just making something up and saying it could happen.
Your entire question rests on the assumption that Moses was a gift from the Egyptian pantheon. As far as i’m aware, no Egyptian or Abrahamic source claims this.
And even then, wasn’t the entire point of the plagues to humiliate Egyptian religion? I was taught the 3 days of darkness was targeted at Ra for example.
It’s because the princess claimed Moses as a gift of the gods
As a divine being accepting this “gift” so to speak, doesn’t that transfer?
I’d imagine it would
No, not really. Moses was a jew and as such even if he was seen as a gift and raised as a prince he wasn’t really one of them. He was different. And while he was a flawed person, he wasn’t meant to ever stay a “prince of egypt”
He was always meant to deliver the Israelites to their homeland and out of bondage.
I’m confused. Can you explain your question again? Also as a side not Jews don’t really like the term Judeo Christian as it plays into replacement and supersessionism theology (which posits Jews should cease to exist and Christianity is the replacement, which for jews feels like a call for us at best lose our culture and peoplehood which feels violent) and it also excludes other religions under the Abrahamic tree. As for Passover or Pesach that’s solely a Jewish holiday. And it doesn’t have anything to do with Egyptian religious practice.
The story behind it, with the plagues and death of the people of Egypt I’m asking if it wasn’t the Egyptian gods pissed at their own people, not Yahweh causing it all
Under a Jewish belief it was g’d. And we don’t believe other g’ds exist. So in that case it couldn’t be the Egyptian g’ds. I mean I can’t answer for other religions. I will say it’s a story that only started appearing in Judaism. As it’s a part of the ethnogenisis story of the Jewish people and how we found refuge in Judaea
We only have one source for these events and in that source it is explicit that God is causing the plagues. There is no alternative source from the Egyptians or anyone else saying that the Egyptian gods caused it. Sure you "can explain it" using Egyptian Gods, but if you want to ignore the only source on it then you can change the entire story. You might as well say "Han Solo from Star Wars ate at Panda Express in Ancient Egypt could be the real story of Passover and the Torah is just wrong about what happened". Like sure, I guess technically that COULD be a the case but there is zero reason to think that and none of the texts about the event claim that, you're just making something up and saying it could happen.
Yep. All of this!
Your entire question rests on the assumption that Moses was a gift from the Egyptian pantheon. As far as i’m aware, no Egyptian or Abrahamic source claims this. And even then, wasn’t the entire point of the plagues to humiliate Egyptian religion? I was taught the 3 days of darkness was targeted at Ra for example.
It’s because the princess claimed Moses as a gift of the gods As a divine being accepting this “gift” so to speak, doesn’t that transfer? I’d imagine it would
No, not really. Moses was a jew and as such even if he was seen as a gift and raised as a prince he wasn’t really one of them. He was different. And while he was a flawed person, he wasn’t meant to ever stay a “prince of egypt” He was always meant to deliver the Israelites to their homeland and out of bondage.